So why do so many pastors say, "broken for you" when they are administrating communion? Well doing a little digging, I found that some later Greek manuscript copies have the verb “broken" in 1 Corinthians 11:24. Many of the earliest English translations of the Bible relied on these particular manuscripts. (For those interested: אc, C3, Db,c, G, K, Ψ, 81, 88, 104, 181, 326, 330, 436, 451, 614, 629, 630, 1241, 1739mg, 1877, 1881, 1962, 1984, 1985, 2127, 2492, 2495, Byz, Lect). Relying on this particular collection of texts, Tyndale’s 1526 translation renders 1 Cor 11:24, “Take ye, and eat ye this is my body which is broken for you. This do ye in the remembrance of me.” We find other early English translations relying on the same textual tradition here, such as the Great Bible (1537) and the Bishop’s Bible (1568). When the King James Version was commissioned by James I in 1604, this is the textual tradition the KJV relied on, which accounts for the fact that the KJV (1611) still has the addition of the verb “broken” in their rendition of the Greek text. This textual tradition also explains how "broken" language has crept into English language liturgical practice.
Apart from the KJV (and NKJV), virtually every other English translation of the Bible renders 1 Cor 11:24 “that is for you,” electing not to include the verb “broken.” This is because these modern translations give preferential treatment to earlier Greek manuscript traditions that were not yet available to the earliest English translators. Although a few still argue for accuracy the Greek text the KJV is based on, the vast majority of scholars today favor the Greek text that modern English translations are based on, such as the New Revised Standard Version, New International Version, New English Version, New American Standard, English Standard Version, New Living Translation, etc. The consensus of modern scholarship is that "broken" is a gloss, that is a later addition to the Greek text that crept in over time as hand copies were made.
This also got me to wondering about how the different historical traditions handle the words of administration. The Eastern Church and Roman Catholic Church simply has, “The body of Christ.” Luther followed the Roman form in his Liturgical practice. The 1549 Anglican Prayer Book in England during the Elizabethan settlement has: “The body of our Lord Jesus Christ which was given for thee, preserve thy body and soul unto everlasting life.” The Puritan Prayer Book of 1584 has, ““Take and eat; this bread is the Body of Christ which was broken for us.” In the Anglican Church today, the following is said when administrating the bread: “The body of Christ, the bread of heaven.”
Although I am not an expert in textual criticism, I found it fascinating how a textual variant that is nearly universally rejected as inauthentic has so significantly influenced how we practice communion today.
I came from a church background that believe if the KJV was good enough for Paul it was good enough for them! I know, bad pun, but I find myself saying and never thought about it until reading this. Christ body was stripped and beaten, but was it really broken? We know from scripture none of His bones were broken. Anyway, I'm heading toward rambling so I'll just spare you and say "Thanks for sharing." It is a good reminder.
ReplyDeleteThe KJV was good enough for Paul??? Really??? Do they say that, and mean it with conviction? Do they realize that the Apostle Paul wasnt using the KJV?
ReplyDeleteThanks for the post Tim. I myself find it interesting that all traditions use the word "IS" and not "symbolizes" or "represents" when administering the Eucharist.
Obviously, the words of institution are important. Usually, when I hear "the body of Christ, broken for you," I hear it at the rail from the person pressing the wafer into my palm. My question is simply this: Is Christ's body, nailed to the cross and broken, not for me? If it is, semantically the words shouldn't be used in the service by the pastor blessing the bread (as argued from the text), but who cares if they tell me it is when they give me the bread at the rail, because Christ on the cross, being broken, was in fact for me . . . and not only me, but all of mankind. (Am I theologically wrong?) His blood was also shed for me, as a compliment (or result) of his body breaking for me.
ReplyDeleteMaybe that's the next question. What does the text have to say on "the blood of Christ, shed for you?" This fits well with "the body of Christ, broken for you," no?